I realize this is not necessarily a valid question as the people are involved are likely the ones who can actually solve it, but I’m sure you have ideas and suggestions nontheless.
I realize this is not necessarily a valid question as the people are involved are likely the ones who can actually solve it, but I’m sure you have ideas and suggestions nontheless.
Or we can draw a line at the very real point where Britain, in all their hubris, said, “Fuck all y’all Arabs, this land is for the Jews” shortly after WWII.
This is the part I don’t get. You can easily set aside the history from hundreds of years ago because the point you describe is such recent history that there are people still alive who remember when this period of shit started. There is no one alive to settle the dispute about when the area went from Canaan to Israel and who was right/wrong but there is a lot of documented knowledge about what happened when Britain got involved after WWI up through WWII.
Thats a complete arbitrary point in time. Why that one and not one hundred years earlier during the ottoman empire?